First of all: this is just for testing of my understanding of the Texas Ratio, I am not responsible for the result.
From FDIC's website, I find the link to the "call report": (http://www4.fdic.gov/call_tfr_rpts/index.asp)
From FFIEC's website, I find financial statements of the Bank of Fayetteville, Fayetteville, AR.
https://cdr.ffiec.gov/public/SearchFacsimiles.aspx
The result:
As of 3/31/2008, the Texas Ratio was (a)17.89% (if including the non-performing loans guaranteed by the Federal Gov.) or (b)17.55% (excluded the Fed Gov's guaranteed NPLs). Note: (a)=7,714/(5,237+37,871)=NPLs/(loan loss allowance at end of period+tangible equity capital), (b)=(7,714-150)/(5,237+37,871).
As of 9/30/2007, couple months ago, its Texas Ratio was 5.60% (=2,213/(4,132+35,396)) (there was no NPLs guaranteed by the government).
Let me know if you have different answers, please.
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